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Question No. 1

Which two limitations of ISE inline posture are true?

A. The Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported
B. QoS is not supported in a virtual environment
C. The Simple Network Management Protocol agent is not supported
D. Flexible NetFlow is not supported
E. Multicast is not supported

Answer: A, C

Question No. 2

Refer to the exhibit.

FMC with address 161.1.7.15 is not seeing AMP connector scan events reported to

AMP cloud from “test-pc” windows machine that belongs to “Protect” group. What could be the issue?

A. Windows machine not reporting scan events to AMP cloud
B. Windows machine not reporting events to FMC
C. Incorrect group is selected for the events export in AMP cloud for FMC
D. AMP cloud not added in FMC
E. FMC not added in AMP cloud
F. Windows machine belongs to incorrect group in AMP cloud policy.
G. Event should be viewed as “Connection” event in FMC

Answer: F

Question No. 3

Which three of these are properties of RC4? (Choose three.)

A. It is a block cipher.
B. It is a stream cipher.
C. It is used in AES.
D. It is a symmetric cipher.
E. It is used in SSL.
F. It is an asymmetric cipher.

Answer: B, D, E

Question No. 4

Which of the following is part of DevOps virtuous cycle?

A. Lower Quality
B. Increased Latency
C. Slower Releases
D. Improved Scalability

Answer: D

Question No. 5

Which type of attack use a large number of spoofed MAC addresses to emulate wireless client?

A. DoS against an access point
B. Dos against a client station
C. chopchop attack
D. Airsnaf attack
E. device-probing attack
F. authentication-failure attack

Answer: A

Question No. 6

Which effect of the ip nhrp map multicast dynamic command is true?

A. It configures a hub router to reflect the routes it learns from a spoke back to other spokes through the
B. It configures a hub router to automatically add spoke routers to the multicast replication list of the hub.
C. It enables a GRE tunnel to operate without the IPsec peer or crypto ACLs.
D. it enables a GRE tunnel to dynamically update the routing tables on the devices at each end of the

Answer: B

Question No. 7

Which host attributes can be assigned in compliance white list?

A. Verified unverified and complaint
B. Verified and unverified
C. Verified, unverified and evaluated
D. Complaint, noncompliant and not evaluated
E. Complaint and noncompliant

Answer: E

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Question No. 1

Which Stealthwatch component is a physical or virtual appliance that aggregates and normalizes NetFlow data?

A. Investigate
B. Stealthwatch Management Center
C. Flow Collector
D. UOP Director

Answer: C

Question No. 2

Which feature of E-mail Security protects users from virus outbreaks using the Tabs database to quarantine suspicious messages?

A. Antivirus defense
B. Outbreak fitters
C. Data Loss Prevention
D. Advanced Malware Protection

Answer: B

Question No. 3

Which is a security product that was covered in the Policy and access security module?

A. Cisco NFGW
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco NGIPS
D. Cisco Defense Orchestrator

Answer: B

Question No. 4

What feature of Anti-Spam Defense determines the reputation of an e-mail?

A. IP addresses
B. Threat analysis
C. Context analysis
D. Encryption score

Answer: C

Question No. 5

Which two features are part of the ISE Plus license? (Choose two.)

A. Threat Centric NAC
B. Profiling and feed services
C. Guest management
D. Cisco pxGrid
E. Basic network Access AAA. 802 IX

Answer: B, D

Question No. 6

Which is a feature mentioned in the DNS security module?

A. Layer-4 monitoring
B. Umbrella
C. Real-time sandboxing
D. Data Loss Prevention

Answer: B

Question No. 7

Which is a feature of E-mail Security?

A. Layer-4 Monitoring
B. Umbrella
C. Outbreak Filters
D. Investigate

Answer: C

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Question No. 1

Which three responses from a RADIUS server are valid? (Choose three.)

A. REJECT
B. CHALLENGE
C. ACCEPT
D. UPDATE PASSWORD
E. CONFIRM

Answer: A, B, C

Question No. 2

Which keyword must you use with the storm-control command to set both upper and lower thresholds for unicast. multicast, and broadcast traffic?

A. pps
B. level
C. set
D. limit

Answer: B

Question No. 3

Which protocol will enable a group of routers to form a single virtual router and will use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address?

A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP

Answer: D

Question No. 4

Which two tasks must you perform to correctly configure IP Source Guard on a switch? (Choose two)

A. Enable DHCP option 82
B. Enable DHCP packet validation on the device
C. Configure the DHCP snooping relay
D. Enable DHCP snooping on the switch
E. Configure the Ip verify source vlan dhcp-snooping command

Answer: D, E

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Question No. 1

When implementing secure PCI wireless networks, which two are specific recommendations in the PCI DSS? (Choose two)

A. Use a minimum 12-character random passphrase with WPA
B. Segment logging events with other networking devices within the organization.
C. Use VLAN based segmentation with MAC filters.
D. Change default settings.
E. Implement strong wireless authentication

Answer: D, E

Question No. 2

Which customizable security report on Cisco Prime Infrastructure would show rogue APs detected since a point in time?

A. New Rogue APs
B. Rogue AP Events
C. Rogue APs
D. Rogue AP Count Summary
E. Network Summary

Answer: C

Question No. 3

An engineer has configured MAC filtering on an employee WLAN and wants clients that fail MAC filtering to attempt to be authenticated via the RADIUS server before denying network access. Which functionality must be enabled on the WLAN to achieve this goal?

A. MAC authentication failover to 802.1X authentication
B. EAP-TLS failover to 802.11r authentication
C. WPA2 AES failover to RADIUS authentication
D. 802.1x failover to WPA2 AES authentication

Answer: A

Question No. 4

An engineer has determined that the source of an authentication issue is the client laptop. Which three items must be verified for EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose three.)

A. The client certificate is formatted as X 509 version 3
B. The validate server certificate option is disabled.
C. The client certificate has a valid expiration date.
D. The user account is the same in the certificate.
E. The supplicant is configured correctly.
F. The subject key identifier is configured correctly.

Answer: A, D, F

Question No. 5

An administrator receives reports of many interferers in the wireless network and wants to get the location of these interferers from the maps in Cisco Prime Infrastructure. When looking at the floor plans/maps, the administrator does not see any interferers, but can see all wireless clients located successfully. Which two statements define the cause of the issue? (Choose two.)

A. MSE is not added to Cisco Prime infrastructure and synchronized.
B. Interferer tracking is not enabled on the MSE.
C. SNMP between Cisco Prime Infrastructure and the WLC is failing.
D. Context Aware Service tracking limit has already been reached with tracking other elements.
E. NSMP communication is inactive with the WLC.

Answer: A, B

Question No. 6

Which security method does a Cisco guest wireless deployment that relies on Cisco ISE guest portal for user authentication use?

A. Layer 2 and Layer 3
B. Layer 2 only
C. No security methods are needed to deploy CWA
D. Layer 3 only

Answer: B

Question No. 7

A Cisco WLC has been added to the network and Cisco ISE as a network device, but authentication is failing. Which configuration within the network device configuration should be verified?

A. shared secret
B. device ID
C. SNMP RO community
D. device interface credentials

Answer: A

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Question No. 1

Refer to the Exhibit:

Which output is expected in the blank line for the OSPF adjacency process?

A. DOWN
B. EXSTART
C. EXCHANGE
D. LOADING

Answer: B

Question No. 2

Which of the following characteristics describe the Root Guard feature? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The port must be put into forwarding state manually after root-inconsistent state has been corrected.
B. A Root Guard port receiving superior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
C. A Root Guard port receiving inferior BPDU goes into a root-inconsistent state.
D. While the port is in a root-inconsistent state no user data is sent across that port.
E. The port returns to a forwarding state if inferior BPDUs stop.
F. It should be applied to all switch ports.

Answer: B, D

Question No. 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the INTERNET ACL is true?

A. A packet with a source address of 2001;DB80:AD59:BA21:101:CAB:64;38 destined to port 80 will be permitted.
B. HTTPS traffic from the 2001:DB8:AD59:BA21::/64 subnet will automatically be permitted along with HTTP traffic.
C. The denied entries will be logged because of the explicit deny ipv6 any any log line
D. A packet with a source address of 2001 :DB8 AD59ACC0 2020:882 :DB8:1125 will be denied

Answer: B

Question No. 4

Refer to exhibit:

After a junior technician configures a new branch office GRE tunnel, which step is missing from the configuration to pass traffic through tunnel on Router 1?

A. static route to 10.0.3.0/24 via 10.0.1.1
B. static route to 10.0.3.0/24 via 10.0.2.1
C. static route to 10.0.3.0/24 via 190.0.4.1
D. static route to 10.0.3.0/24 via 190.0.4.2

Answer: D

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Question No. 1

Refer to the exhibits labeled A through E.

All devices are to be connected over Ethernet. Which three device-to-device configurations are likely to require the use of a crossover connection? (Choose three.)

A. exhibit A
B. exhibit B
C. exhibit C
D. exhibit D
E. exhibit E

Answer: A, D, E

Question No. 2

Which two statements about the extended traceroute command are true? (Choose two.)

A. It can be repeated automatically at a specified interval.
B. It can validate the reply data.
C. It can use a specified TTL value.
D. It can send packets from a specified interface or IP address.
E. It can use a specified ToS.

Answer: C, D

Question No. 3

R1 is configured with the default configuration of OSPF. From the following list of IP addresses configured on R1, which address will the OSPF process select as the router ID?

A. 192.168.0.1
B. 172.16.1.1
C. 172.16.2.1
D. 172.16.2.225

Answer: A

Question No. 4

Which two management protocols operate over TCP? (Choose two)

A. FTP
B. CDP
C. SNMP
D. SCP
E. TFTP
F. NTP

Answer: A, C

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Question No. 1

Which statements are true about Provisioning Request Definitions? (Choose 2.)

A. They are used to launch attestation workflows.
B. They are used to grant or revoke corporate roles.
C. They are used to provide policy rules.
D. They are used to filter requests at the driver level.
E. They are used to define Global Configuration Values.

Answer: A, B

Enterprise Administrator Expert MS-100 Exam Questions Are Out!

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Vendor	Microsoft
Exam Code	MS-100
Full Exam Name	Microsoft 365 Identity and Services
Certification Name	Enterprise Administrator Expert
Technology	365

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Version: 9.0
Question: 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements.
Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Reader role. From the
Exchange admin center, you assign User2 the Compliance Management role.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. NO

Answer: A

Question: 2

Note This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements.
Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Administrator role. From
the Exchange admin center, you add User2 to the View-Only Management role.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. NO

Answer: B

Question: 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements.
Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Reader role.
From the Exchange admin center, you assign User2 the Help Desk role.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. NO

Answer: B

Question: 4

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals- Some question sets might
have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As m result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirement.
Solution: From the Office 36S admin center, you assign User2 the Records Management role. From
the Exchange 3dmm center, you assign User2 the Help Desk role.
Does that meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. NO

Answer: B

Question: 5

You need to Add the custom domain name* to Office 36S K> support the planned changes as quickly
as possible.
What should you create to verify the domain names successfully?

A. three alias (CNAME) record
B. one text (TXT) record
C. one alias (CNAME) record
D. three text (TXT) record

Answer: D

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Vendor	Microsoft
Exam Code	AZ-203
Full Exam Name	Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure
Certification Name	Azure Developer Associate
Technology

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Version: 8.0
Question: 1

You need to meet the security requirements for the E-Commerce Web App. Which
two steps should you take? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Create an Azure AD service principal.
B. Enable Managed Service Identity (MSI) on the E-Commerce Web App.
C. Add a policy to the Azure Key Vault to grant access to the E-Commerce Wet)
App.
D. Update the E-Commerce Web App with the service principal’s client secret.

Answer: D

Question: 2

You need to provision and deploy the order workflow.
Which three components should you include? Each correct answer presents part of
the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

A. Workflow definition
B. Connections
C. Resources
D. Functions
E. On-premises Data Gateway

Answer: C, D, E

Question: 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario.
Each question in the series contains a unique solution.
Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the LabelMaket application
Solution; Create a conditional access policy and assign it to the Azure Kubernetes
service cluster.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

Question: 4

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario.
Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the
solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the LabelMaker application security requirement.
Solution: Place the Azure Active Directory account into an Azure AD group. Create a
ClusterRoleBinding and assign it to the group.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

Question: 5

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario.
Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the
solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the LabelMaker application security requirement.
Solution: Create a Microsoft Azure Active Directory service principal and assign it to
the Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

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Vendor	Oracle
Exam Code	1Z0-1028
Full Exam Name	Oracle Planning Central Cloud Service 2018 Implementation Essentials
Certification Name	Oracle Cloud
Technology

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Version: 7.0
Question: 1

The structure of the Plan Summary Layout is a predefined __________.

A. Material Plan view
B. Set of Exceptions
C. Supply Demand Workbench
D. Set of Infotiles
E. Group of Reports

Answer: D

Question: 2

Your client wants to utilize product categories on sourcing rules. They have created a new category
for this and populated the items for it.
Where do they set up the category planning uses when evaluating sourcing rules?

A. Manage Planning Profile Options
B. Manage Plans
C. Manage Sourcing Rules
D. Manage Assignment Sets
E. Manage Planning Source Systems

Answer: D

Question: 3

You have executed Planning Data Collection and want to confirm that data has successfully been
collected. Identify the three data combinations that can be viewed using the Maintain Supply
Network Model Page. (Choose three.)

A. Customer Location and Carriers
B. Safety Stock and Subinventories
C. Sales Channel and Demand Class
D. Calendar and Master Organization
E. Supplier Site and Service Level

Answer: ADE

Question: 4

Your Procurement Department is getting ready to set up Approved Supplier Lists that will be needed
for Supply Planning. They ask you for what you need on the ASLs for planning usage. Which three
options are key for planning? (Choose three.)

A. Make sure to include Maximum Order Quantities.
B. Make sure to include Minimum Order Quantities.
C. Make sure to include Fixed Lot Multipliers.
D. Make sure to include Fixed Order Quantities.
E. Make sure they are at a Global level.
F. Make sure all Local level ASLs include an Organization.

Answer: BCE

Question: 5

Which option outlines changes you can make to a simulation plan when evaluating demand and
supply?

A. Change item specification values, change item lead times, create mass changes for items
B. Add demands, cancel demands, reschedule demands, add supply, cancel supply, reschedule
supplies
C. Change item specification values, change item lead times, change item-organization specification
values
D. Add demands, cancel demands, reschedule demands, add new planned orders, reschedule
supplies
E. Change item specification values, change item lead times, create mass changes for items all at
once, change item-organization specification values

Answer: B

Question: 6

You have created several infotiles based on the client requirements. You now want to group them
together for display. How do you accomplish this?

A. First build them into an info set in Manage Infosets. Then open the info set on the plan by going to
Open (choose area) > Choose info set.
B. No need to group them. Open them directly on the plan going to Open (choose area) > Choose
Infotile.
C. First build them into a tile set in Manage Table, Graphs, and Analysis Sets. Then open the tile set
on the plan by going to Open (choose area) > Choose tile set.
D. First build them into a planning group in Manage Planning Groups. Then open the planning group
on the plan by going to Open (choose area) > Choose planning group.
E. First build them into a planning measure in Manage Planning Measures. Then open the planning
measure on the plan by going to Open (choose area) > Choose planning measure.

Answer: C

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